Title: Iis it correct that the jursits have said that there is no need to use divorce by means of a letter or written words if the wife is present at the time as it can be given verbally. divorce is only permissible in writing if husband and wife are in two different places therefore if a person is forced to divorce wife and he divorces her in written words this is not a valid divorce.

Question: Iis it correct that the jursits have said that there is no need to use divorce by means of a letter or written words if the wife is present at the time as it can be given verbally. divorce is only permissible in writing if husband and wife are in two different places therefore if a person is forced to divorce wife and he divorces her in written words this is not a valid divorce.

Answer ID: 2699Posted on: Aug 30, 2020

Bismillah hir-Rahman nir-Rahim !

(Fatwa: 33/33=J)

If husband writes talaq in presence of his wife and hands over it to her and does not pronounce it with his tongue then the talaq will not take place and the writing is null and void according to Shariah. Writing is alternative to speaking, but when his wife is present in front of him there is no need of any writing:

قال الشامی: و ظاھرہ ان المعنون من الناطق غیر معتبر (الشامی ط زکریا 10/461)

وکذلک فی الحموی علی الاشباہ فی احکام الکتابۃ: لان الکتاب من الغائب جعل کالخطاب من الحاضر (فی حاشیتہ) ای عند الحاجۃ (کذا فی نظام الفتاوی 2/86)

Likewise, if anyone is forced to write talaq or to sigh a talaq­-letter but he does not pronounce talaq then the talaq will not take place:

فلو اکرہ علی ان یکتب طلاق امراتہ فکتب لا تطلق، کذا فی الخانیۃ (الشامی ط زکریا 4-440)